1. Beta particles:
A. do contribute to patient
absorbed dose
B. before coming to rest may
travel in tissue for several millimetres
C. increase atomic number by
one
D. change mass number in the
nucleus
E. are emitted from the nucleus
2. Electron capture:
A. occurs in neutron poor
radionuclides
B. results in the emission of
characteristic X-rays
C. the atomic number remains
the same
D. the atomic mass number
remains the same
E. 123I decays wholly by electron capture
3. The isotopes of an element have:
A. identical atomic numbers
B. identical atomic mass
numbers
C. identical physical
properties
D. identical chemical
properties
E. the same density
4. Radioactivity:
A. a radionuclide is an atom
with an unstable nucleus
B. the activity of a
radionuclide is the number of decays per hour
C. unit of activity is the
Becquerel
D. radioactivity is a
stochastic process
E. the daughter product is
always radioactive
5. An increase in kilovoltage across an X-ray tube is associated
with:
A. a shortening of average
wavelength of the X-ray spectrum
B. a relative increase in
emitted X-ray intensity
C. an increase in penetration
of the beam
D. a decrease in the half value
layer of the beam
E. an increase in average
frequency of the X-ray spectrum
6. The photoelectric effect in radiography:
A. occurs about 70–80% of the
time
B. is the interaction of a
photon and a bound electron
C. occurs more frequently as
the photon energy increases
D. interacts with the L-shell
normally
E. is a pure absorption process
in biological materials
7. Regarding Compton interactions:
A. the scattered photon carries
all the energy
B. all scatter is in a forward
direction
C. they are responsible for 50%
of interactions at 30 keV in soft tissues
D. the probability of interaction
per mm length is proportional to the tissue density
E. the probability of
interaction is proportional to the electron density
8. In a rotating anode X-ray tube:
A. the anode is composed of a
disc of pure tungsten for general radiography
B. the rotor has a blackened
surface to increase radiation heat loss
C. an induction motor with a
stator coil is used
D. the rotor bearings are
lubricated with thin mineral oil
E. the molybdenum anode stem is
designed to allow maximum heat conduction
9. In radiography the quality of the beam is changed by
increasing:
A. focus film distance
B. tube kilovoltage (kV)
C. exposure time
D. tube current (mA) with fixed
kV
E. tube filtration
10. The amount of scattered radiation reaching the film in
diagnostic X-ray imaging can be reduced by using:
A. an air gap
B. a grid
C. beam collimation in the
X-ray assembly to reduce field size
D. increased X-ray beam
filtration
E. an increased tube potential
between cathode and anode
11. Regarding deterministic effects of ionising radiation:
A. a threshold must be exceeded
before an effect is observed
B. cataract induction is an
example
C. the probability of a
deterministic radiation effect is inversely proportional to dose
D. the severity of effect
increases with radiation dose
E. genetic effects are somatic
effects
12. The duties of an employer under Ionising Radiation
Regulations (IRR) (1999):
A. to ensure a Radiation
Protection Adviser (RPA) advises the employer on the designation of controlled
areas
B. to consult a RPA over the
design of new installations
C. to set down local rules for
the use of ionising radiation at work
D. to appoint a Radiation
Protection Supervisor (RPS) where local rules are required
E. to ensure all persons to be
classified, have a medical examination
13. Concerning IRR (1999):
A. it is the responsibility of
the employee to monitor and maintain the safety of equipment
B. a controlled area is one in
which doses are likely to exceed 30% of any dose limit for employees over 18
years of age
C. dose limits are irrelevant
when defining a supervised area
D. controlled and supervised
areas are defined in the systems of work
E. local rules allow
non-classified persons to enter a controlled area
14. Regarding statutory responsibilities:
A. the IRR (1999) are governed
by the principle of as low as reasonably achievable
B. IRMER (2000) lays down
measures on the health protection of individuals against the dangers of
ionising radiation in relation to medical exposure
C. radioisotopes can only be
administered by someone who holds a certificate of adequate training
D. an administration of
radioactive substances advisory committee (ARSAC) licence is granted to the health authority or trust
E. crown immunity exempts all
NHS hospitals in the UK from the regulations governing the storage of
radioactive materials
Qs
15. Concerning personal doses:
A. workers who receive less
than 30% of a dose limit cannot be classified
B. a nurse who works
permanently in an X-ray department is usually classified
C. the radiation dose records
of a classified worker must be kept for 2 years
D. personal monitoring badges
must be worn by all unclassified radiologists performing fluoroscopy
E. the as low as reasonably
practicable (ALARP) principle applies to occupational dose as well as patient
dose
16. Regarding radiation doses to patients and staff:
A. under IRR (1999) the
effective dose limit for members of the public is 1 mSv per annum
B. a patient may receive
approximately 4 mSv effective dose from an AP pelvis examination
C. comforters and carers may
receive 5 mSv over 5 years
D. a member of staff may have
to be classified if their effective dose looks likely to exceed 1 mSv per year
E. the fatal cancer risk for an
effective dose of 2 mSv is approximately 1 in 500,000 weighted over a
population aged 18–60
17. Regarding radiation dose to patients and members of the
public:
A. the effective dose for a
positron emission tomography (PET) head scan with
18F-FDG is 5mSv
B. the effective dose limit to
the public is 1 mSv per annum
C. the background radiation
dose is approximately 6_Sv per day
D. medical exposures contribute
approximately 0.3 mSv on average per capita annually to UK collective dose
E. the entrance surface dose of
a chest radiograph is 0.03mGy
CQs
18. Radiopharmaceuticals used for diagnostic imaging should
ideally:
A. emit photons with an energy
greater than 300 keV
B. have a physical half-life of
more than 4 days
C. decay to a stable state
D. be a pure gamma emitter
E. be stable in vivo
