Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of cisplatin?
A. Topoisomerase II inhibition
B. Microtubule stabilization
C. DNA crosslinking
D. Folate analog inhibition
E. EGFR inhibition-
What is the most effective antiemetic class for delayed chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?
A. 5-HT3 receptor antagonists
B. NK1 receptor antagonists
C. Dopamine antagonists
D. Antihistamines
E. Benzodiazepines -
5-Fluorouracil primarily inhibits which enzyme?
A. Dihydrofolate reductase
B. Thymidylate synthase
C. Topoisomerase I
D. DNA polymerase
E. Aromatase -
Which drug is classically associated with pulmonary fibrosis?
A. Methotrexate
B. Paclitaxel
C. Bleomycin
D. Cyclophosphamide
E. Doxorubicin -
Which monoclonal antibody targets the EGFR?
A. Bevacizumab
B. Trastuzumab
C. Cetuximab
D. Rituximab
E. Alemtuzumab -
What is the dose-limiting toxicity of vincristine?
A. Myelosuppression
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Neurotoxicity
D. Ototoxicity
E. Pulmonary fibrosis -
Taxanes exert their cytotoxic effect during which cell cycle phase?
A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
E. G0 phase -
Resistance to methotrexate may occur due to:
A. Overexpression of thymidylate synthase
B. Upregulation of dihydrofolate reductase
C. Increased DNA repair mechanisms
D. Decreased p-glycoprotein activity
E. Inhibition of cytochrome P450 -
Imatinib is best classified as a:
A. VEGF inhibitor
B. EGFR monoclonal antibody
C. BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor
D. Topoisomerase I inhibitor
E. CD20 monoclonal antibody -
The major dose-limiting toxicity of bleomycin is:
A. Cardiotoxicity
B. Pulmonary toxicity
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Neurotoxicity
E. Hepatotoxicity
Which agent is most associated with hemorrhagic cystitis?
A. Cisplatin
B. Ifosfamide
C. 5-FU
D. Methotrexate
E. Irinotecan-
Leucovorin is used with 5-FU to:
A. Reduce its toxicity
B. Inhibit its metabolism
C. Enhance its cytotoxicity
D. Prevent renal clearance
E. Inhibit thymidylate synthase -
Irinotecan is converted to its active metabolite by:
A. CYP3A4
B. UGT1A1
C. CES2 (carboxylesterase)
D. DPD (dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase)
E. ALDH -
Bevacizumab targets which molecule?
A. VEGFR-2
B. EGFR
C. VEGF-A
D. HER2
E. PD-1 -
Which agent is associated with cold-induced peripheral neuropathy?
A. Doxorubicin
B. Cisplatin
C. Oxaliplatin
D. Irinotecan
E. Gemcitabine -
Tamoxifen acts as:
A. Aromatase inhibitor
B. Estrogen receptor antagonist in all tissues
C. SERM – antagonist in breast, agonist in endometrium
D. Selective estrogen agonist
E. Estrogen synthesis blocker -
Aromatase inhibitors act by:
A. Blocking estrogen receptors
B. Inhibiting conversion of androgens to estrogen
C. Depleting circulating progesterone
D. Direct ER degradation
E. Stimulating LH -
Major toxicity of anthracyclines (e.g., doxorubicin):
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Cardiotoxicity
E. Peripheral neuropathy -
Etoposide acts by:
A. DNA alkylation
B. Microtubule stabilization
C. Topoisomerase I inhibition
D. Topoisomerase II inhibition
E. EGFR blockade -
Resistance to EGFR inhibitors may result from:
A. Increased HER2 expression
B. KRAS mutations
C. Loss of p53
D. Reduced VEGF expression
E. Downregulation of PDL1 -
Which mutation predicts resistance to cetuximab?
A. EGFR amplification
B. KRAS mutation
C. BRAF mutation
D. HER2 mutation
E. ALK rearrangement -
Common side effect of sunitinib:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypertension
C. Diarrhea
D. Visual disturbance
E. Pulmonary fibrosis -
Bortezomib inhibits:
A. Tyrosine kinase
B. mTOR
C. Proteasome
D. Topoisomerase II
E. HDAC -
Palifermin is used to:
A. Prevent febrile neutropenia
B. Enhance erythropoiesis
C. Prevent mucositis
D. Reduce renal toxicity
E. Treat thrombocytopenia -
A patient on 6-mercaptopurine develops myelosuppression. The likely cause is:
A. G6PD deficiency
B. DPD mutation
C. TPMT deficiency
D. ALDH mutation
E. CYP2C19 mutation -
Trastuzumab is primarily used in cancers that overexpress:
A. EGFR
B. VEGFR
C. HER2
D. PD-L1
E. ALK -
Which of the following agents causes dose-dependent cardiomyopathy?
A. Vincristine
B. Cisplatin
C. Doxorubicin
D. Etoposide
E. Methotrexate -
Which of these drugs is a pyrimidine analog?
A. Cytarabine
B. Mercaptopurine
C. Methotrexate
D. Fludarabine
E. Cladribine -
Hand-foot syndrome is commonly associated with:
A. Doxorubicin
B. Capecitabine
C. Rituximab
D. Oxaliplatin
E. Trastuzumab -
Which checkpoint inhibitor targets PD-1?
A. Atezolizumab
B. Durvalumab
C. Ipilimumab
D. Nivolumab
E. Bevacizumab Which of the following is a purine analog?
A. Methotrexate
B. 5-FU
C. Fludarabine
D. Vinblastine
E. Irinotecan-
A side effect of high-dose cytarabine is:
A. Cardiotoxicity
B. Cerebellar toxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
E. Hypotension -
Which agent is used to reduce hemorrhagic cystitis caused by ifosfamide?
A. Leucovorin
B. Dexrazoxane
C. Amifostine
D. Mesna
E. Palifermin -
A checkpoint inhibitor targeting CTLA-4 is:
A. Nivolumab
B. Atezolizumab
C. Ipilimumab
D. Durvalumab
E. Pembrolizumab -
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor used in renal cell carcinoma:
A. Sorafenib
B. Erlotinib
C. Gefitinib
D. Imatinib
E. Panitumumab -
Which of the following is most likely to cause ototoxicity?
A. Oxaliplatin
B. Carboplatin
C. Cisplatin
D. Docetaxel
E. Irinotecan -
The mechanism of resistance to tamoxifen can involve:
A. Overexpression of estrogen receptor
B. Loss of HER2
C. CYP2D6 polymorphisms
D. EGFR amplification
E. BRAF mutation -
DPD deficiency results in toxicity to:
A. Methotrexate
B. Capecitabine
C. Cisplatin
D. Vincristine
E. Trastuzumab -
Which agent is known to cause interstitial pneumonitis?
A. Rituximab
B. 5-FU
C. Etoposide
D. Tamoxifen
E. Flutamide -
Which drug causes reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome (RPLS)?
A. Paclitaxel
B. Sunitinib
C. Bevacizumab
D. Doxorubicin
E. Methotrexate -
Which of the following is a CD20 monoclonal antibody?
A. Bevacizumab
B. Rituximab
C. Trastuzumab
D. Cetuximab
E. Alemtuzumab -
Gefitinib is primarily used to treat:
A. Colorectal cancer
B. Breast cancer
C. NSCLC with EGFR mutation
D. Renal cancer
E. Pancreatic cancer -
Which chemotherapy is associated with acute cholinergic syndrome?
A. Irinotecan
B. Oxaliplatin
C. Capecitabine
D. Methotrexate
E. Vinorelbine -
Which agent causes hemorrhagic pericarditis?
A. Doxorubicin
B. Methotrexate
C. Paclitaxel
D. Cyclophosphamide
E. Cisplatin -
Which agent most commonly causes hand-foot syndrome?
A. Vinorelbine
B. Capecitabine
C. Gemcitabine
D. Etoposide
E. Paclitaxel -
Which enzyme is important in metabolizing thiopurines?
A. DPD
B. ALDH
C. TPMT
D. CYP2D6
E. UGT1A1 -
Which drug is commonly associated with acneiform rash?
A. Bevacizumab
B. Cetuximab
C. Rituximab
D. Trastuzumab
E. Imatinib -
An immune-related adverse event of checkpoint inhibitors includes:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Neutropenia
C. Pneumonitis
D. Ototoxicity
E. Hyperkalemia -
A drug that inhibits mTOR is:
A. Sunitinib
B. Everolimus
C. Erlotinib
D. Crizotinib
E. Vandetanib -
HDAC inhibitors act by:
A. Blocking DNA repair enzymes
B. Inhibiting angiogenesis
C. Promoting acetylation of histones
D. Inhibiting EGFR
E. Stabilizing microtubules -
Which alkylating agent is a nitrosourea?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Lomustine
C. Cisplatin
D. Busulfan
E. Temozolomide -
Which drug is a HER2-targeted antibody-drug conjugate?
A. Trastuzumab
B. Ado-trastuzumab emtansine (T-DM1)
C. Pertuzumab
D. Lapatinib
E. Nivolumab -
Which agent is used as radioprotection for salivary glands?
A. Leucovorin
B. Palifermin
C. Mesna
D. Amifostine
E. Dexrazoxane -
Which drug is a fluoropyrimidine prodrug?
A. Cytarabine
B. Capecitabine
C. Methotrexate
D. Cladribine
E. Fludarabine -
Which is a known risk of trastuzumab therapy?
A. Pneumonitis
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Cardiac dysfunction
D. Hepatotoxicity
E. Renal impairment -
Which targeted agent causes QT prolongation?
A. Erlotinib
B. Sunitinib
C. Vandetanib
D. Nivolumab
E. Lenvatinib -
Which agent inhibits PD-L1?
A. Nivolumab
B. Ipilimumab
C. Atezolizumab
D. Pembrolizumab
E. Rituximab -
Which class of drugs is associated with tumor lysis syndrome?
A. Antimitotics
B. Immune checkpoint inhibitors
C. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
D. Cytotoxic alkylating agents
E. Monoclonal antibodies -
Which of the following is an irreversible EGFR inhibitor?
A. Gefitinib
B. Erlotinib
C. Osimertinib
D. Cetuximab
E. Panitumumab -
Which drug combination is known as FOLFIRINOX?
A. 5-FU + Irinotecan + Oxaliplatin + Leucovorin
B. 5-FU + Paclitaxel + Cisplatin + Mesna
C. Irinotecan + Gemcitabine + Capecitabine
D. 5-FU + Methotrexate + Bleomycin
E. Capecitabine + Oxaliplatin + Leucovorin Which of the following drugs can cause pulmonary fibrosis?
A. Bleomycin
B. Methotrexate
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. All of the above
E. None of the above-
Which of these drugs is most associated with causing SIADH?
A. Vincristine
B. Methotrexate
C. Cisplatin
D. Etoposide
E. Irinotecan -
Which drug class is known for causing immune-related colitis?
A. Taxanes
B. Alkylating agents
C. Immune checkpoint inhibitors
D. EGFR inhibitors
E. Topoisomerase inhibitors -
Which drug is a selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD)?
A. Tamoxifen
B. Letrozole
C. Exemestane
D. Fulvestrant
E. Raloxifene -
The mechanism of cyclophosphamide includes:
A. Microtubule inhibition
B. DNA cross-linking
C. Topoisomerase I inhibition
D. Inhibition of thymidylate synthase
E. HER2 blockade -
Which agent is most likely to cause alopecia?
A. Capecitabine
B. 5-FU
C. Paclitaxel
D. Bevacizumab
E. Rituximab -
Which of the following drugs is a monoclonal antibody against VEGF?
A. Ramucirumab
B. Bevacizumab
C. Sorafenib
D. Aflibercept
E. Axitinib -
Which drug inhibits BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase?
A. Gefitinib
B. Imatinib
C. Erlotinib
D. Sorafenib
E. Vandetanib -
Which anticancer drug causes neurotoxicity via microtubule interference?
A. Oxaliplatin
B. Vincristine
C. Cisplatin
D. Etoposide
E. Doxorubicin -
Which of these requires testing for UGT1A1 polymorphisms?
A. Cisplatin
B. Irinotecan
C. Methotrexate
D. Capecitabine
E. Gemcitabine -
Which checkpoint inhibitor targets PD-1?
A. Atezolizumab
B. Durvalumab
C. Ipilimumab
D. Nivolumab
E. Bevacizumab -
A known toxicity of cisplatin is:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Cardiotoxicity
D. Cerebellar toxicity
E. Myelosuppression -
Methotrexate acts on which enzyme?
A. DPD
B. DHFR
C. Thymidylate synthase
D. Topoisomerase II
E. ALDH -
Which of the following may reduce methotrexate toxicity?
A. MESNA
B. Leucovorin
C. Allopurinol
D. Glucarpidase
E. Both B and D -
Which is NOT a known side effect of pembrolizumab?
A. Pneumonitis
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Colitis
D. Ototoxicity
E. Hepatitis -
Which of the following is a taxane?
A. Vincristine
B. Paclitaxel
C. Etoposide
D. Irinotecan
E. Doxorubicin -
Which cancer type is treated with BRAF inhibitors like vemurafenib?
A. Prostate cancer
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Breast cancer
E. Colon cancer -
A common toxicity of vemurafenib:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Rash
C. Nephritis
D. Peripheral neuropathy
E. Alopecia -
Which chemotherapy drug can lead to hemorrhagic colitis?
A. Capecitabine
B. Irinotecan
C. Methotrexate
D. Etoposide
E. Cyclophosphamide -
Which oral chemotherapy drug is activated in the liver?
A. 5-FU
B. Capecitabine
C. Gemcitabine
D. Paclitaxel
E. Doxorubicin -
Which of the following drugs is associated with acneiform rash?
A. Bevacizumab
B. Cetuximab
C. Rituximab
D. Atezolizumab
E. Lapatinib -
EGFR inhibitors most commonly cause which toxicity?
A. Hypertension
B. Proteinuria
C. Acneiform rash
D. Pneumonitis
E. Ototoxicity -
Which agent causes hyperlipidemia as a side effect?
A. Everolimus
B. Paclitaxel
C. Capecitabine
D. Trastuzumab
E. Methotrexate -
An example of a pyrimidine analog is:
A. Mercaptopurine
B. Fludarabine
C. Cytarabine
D. Cladribine
E. Vinblastine -
Sunitinib most commonly causes:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Alopecia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Rash
E. SIADH -
Which agent is used to reverse methotrexate in cases of toxicity?
A. Palifermin
B. Amifostine
C. Glucarpidase
D. Dexrazoxane
E. MESNA -
Vincristine dose is limited by:
A. Myelosuppression
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Neurotoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
E. Pulmonary fibrosis -
Which agent blocks PD-L1?
A. Pembrolizumab
B. Nivolumab
C. Durvalumab
D. Ipilimumab
E. None of the above -
Which chemotherapy agent is most emetogenic?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Cisplatin
C. Methotrexate
D. 5-FU
E. Etoposide -
A drug used for neutropenia prophylaxis is:
A. Epoetin
B. Filgrastim
C. Palifermin
D. Rituximab
E. Luspatercept -
Which agent is used in hormone receptor–positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women?
A. Tamoxifen
B. Letrozole
C. Fulvestrant
D. Raloxifene
E. Trastuzumab -
Which cancer is most commonly treated with imatinib?
A. Lung cancer
B. GIST
C. Breast cancer
D. Ovarian cancer
E. Melanoma -
Which is a topoisomerase I inhibitor?
A. Etoposide
B. Irinotecan
C. Doxorubicin
D. Mitoxantrone
E. Vinblastine -
Which class of drugs is most associated with cytokine release syndrome?
A. Alkylating agents
B. Taxanes
C. Monoclonal antibodies
D. EGFR inhibitors
E. Platinum compounds -
Which drug requires screening for Hepatitis B prior to administration?
A. Cetuximab
B. Rituximab
C. Tamoxifen
D. Bevacizumab
E. Paclitaxel -
What is a key toxicity of L-asparaginase?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Thyroid dysfunction
E. Cardiotoxicity -
Which drug blocks the PD-1 receptor?
A. Atezolizumab
B. Durvalumab
C. Nivolumab
D. Ipilimumab
E. Bevacizumab -
Which drug interferes with folate metabolism?
A. 5-FU
B. Methotrexate
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Etoposide
E. Gemcitabine -
Which of the following agents causes S-phase–specific cell cycle arrest?
A. Vinblastine
B. 5-FU
C. Cisplatin
D. Doxorubicin
E. Trastuzumab -
A common endocrine toxicity of immune checkpoint inhibitors is:
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypothyroidism
C. SIADH
D. Panhypopituitarism
E. Hyperaldosteronism
ANSWERS
-
C. DNA crosslinking
-
B. NK1 receptor antagonists
-
B. Thymidylate synthase
-
C. Bleomycin
-
C. Cetuximab
-
C. Neurotoxicity
-
D. M phase
-
B. Upregulation of dihydrofolate reductase
-
C. BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor
-
B. Pulmonary toxicity
B. Ifosfamide
C. Enhance its cytotoxicity
C. CES2 (carboxylesterase)
C. VEGF-A
C. Oxaliplatin
C. SERM – antagonist in breast, agonist in endometrium
B. Inhibiting conversion of androgens to estrogen
D. Cardiotoxicity
D. Topoisomerase II inhibition
B. KRAS mutations
B. KRAS mutation
B. Hypertension
C. Proteasome
C. Prevent mucositis
C. TPMT deficiency
C. HER2
C. Doxorubicin
A. Cytarabine
B. Capecitabine
D. Nivolumab
C. Fludarabine
B. Cerebellar toxicity
D. Mesna
C. Ipilimumab
A. Sorafenib
C. Cisplatin
C. CYP2D6 polymorphisms
B. Capecitabine
A. Rituximab
C. Bevacizumab
B. Rituximab
C. NSCLC with EGFR mutation
A. Irinotecan
D. Cyclophosphamide
B. Capecitabine
C. TPMT
B. Cetuximab
C. Pneumonitis
B. Everolimus
C. Promoting acetylation of histones
B. Lomustine
B. Ado-trastuzumab emtansine (T-DM1)
D. Amifostine
B. Capecitabine
C. Cardiac dysfunction
C. Vandetanib
C. Atezolizumab
D. Cytotoxic alkylating agents
C. Osimertinib
A. 5-FU + Irinotecan + Oxaliplatin + Leucovorin
D. All of the above
-
A. Vincristine
-
C. Immune checkpoint inhibitors
-
D. Fulvestrant
-
B. DNA cross-linking
-
C. Paclitaxel
-
B. Bevacizumab
-
B. Imatinib
-
B. Vincristine
-
B. Irinotecan
-
D. Nivolumab
-
B. Nephrotoxicity
-
B. DHFR
-
E. Both B and D
-
D. Ototoxicity
-
B. Paclitaxel
-
C. Melanoma
-
B. Rash
-
B. Irinotecan
-
B. Capecitabine
-
B. Cetuximab
-
C. Acneiform rash
-
A. Everolimus
-
C. Cytarabine
-
A. Hypothyroidism
-
C. Glucarpidase
-
C. Neurotoxicity
-
C. Durvalumab
-
B. Cisplatin
-
B. Filgrastim
-
B. Letrozole
-
B. GIST
-
B. Irinotecan
-
C. Monoclonal antibodies
-
B. Rituximab
-
A. Hyperglycemia
-
C. Nivolumab
-
B. Methotrexate
-
B. 5-FU
-
B. Hypothyroidism
