1. The two independent samples t statistic, according to Norman and Streiner (2009) can be interpreted as:
a. (Observed difference in means)/(pooled standard deviation) = signal/noise
b. (Observed difference in means)/(expected variability in means due to random sampling) = noise/signal
c. (Observed difference in means)/(expected variability in means due to random sampling) = signal/noise
d. (Observed treatment mean)/(expected variability in means due to random sampling) = noise/signal
e. (Observed difference in medians)/(expected variability in medians due to random sampling) = signal/noise
2. The two independent samples t statistic, makes an additional assumption, compared to that of the one sample/paired t statistic, that is assessed by Levenes statistic what is this:
a. Variances of both samples is due to random sampling
b. Variances of both samples is due to sampling bias
c. Variances of both samples is due to sample size
d. Variances of both samples is significantly different
e. Means of both samples is due to random sampling
3. The sampling distribution of Levenes statistic follows a particular theoretical distribution which of the following is it?
a. Standard normal
b. t
c. F
d. Chi square
e. Exponential
4. Traditionally, when evaluating a null hypothesis one makes use of a critical value. A critical value . is. .?
a. a value set by the computer to create a decision rule regarding acceptance/rejection of the null hypothesis
b. a value you set to create a decision rule regarding effect size
c. a value set by the computer to create a decision rule regarding acceptance/rejection of the null hypothesis
d. a value you set to create a confidence interval regarding acceptance/rejection of the null hypothesis
e. a value you set to create a decision rule regarding acceptance/rejection of the null hypothesis
5. Traditionally a critical value is set at one of the following. . .?
a. 0.05, 0.01, 0.00001
b. 0.05, 0.01, 0.001
c. 0.5, 0.1, 0.001
d. 0.5, 0.01, 0.001
e. 0.005, 0.001, 0.005
Friday, October 18, 2013
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Medical Statistic 7 (13 questions)
1. The t pdf has a mean value of:
a. 0
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
2. The one sample t statistic, according to Norman and Streiner (2009) can be interpreted as:
a. (Observed difference in means)/(pooled standard deviation) = signal/noise
b. (Observed difference in means)/(expected variability in means due to random sampling) = noise/signal
c. (Observed difference in means)/(expected variability in means due to random sampling) = signal/noise
d. (Observed mean)/(expected variability in means due to random sampling) = noise/signal
e. (Observed difference in medians)/(expected variability in medians due to random sampling) = signal/noise
3. The one sample t statistic, is suitable in the following situation:
a. Comparison of a sample mean to that of a population mean
b. Comparison of a sample proportion to that of a population proportion
c. Comparison of a sample mean to that of a population one, where the sampling distribution is exponential
d. Comparison of a sample distribution to that of a population
e. Comparison of a sample mean to that of a population one over a time period
4. The one sample t statistic, has a degrees of freedom equal to:
a. Number of observations in sample plus one
b. Number of observations in sample
c. Number of observations in sample minus one
d. Number of observations in sample minus two
e. Number of observations in sample minus three
5. The p value associated with the one sample t statistic, assumes the following:
a. Mean of sample is not equal to the comparator
b. Mean of sample less than that of the comparator
c. Mean of sample greater than that of the comparator
d. Mean of sample and comparator are identical
e. None of the above
a. 0
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
2. The one sample t statistic, according to Norman and Streiner (2009) can be interpreted as:
a. (Observed difference in means)/(pooled standard deviation) = signal/noise
b. (Observed difference in means)/(expected variability in means due to random sampling) = noise/signal
c. (Observed difference in means)/(expected variability in means due to random sampling) = signal/noise
d. (Observed mean)/(expected variability in means due to random sampling) = noise/signal
e. (Observed difference in medians)/(expected variability in medians due to random sampling) = signal/noise
3. The one sample t statistic, is suitable in the following situation:
a. Comparison of a sample mean to that of a population mean
b. Comparison of a sample proportion to that of a population proportion
c. Comparison of a sample mean to that of a population one, where the sampling distribution is exponential
d. Comparison of a sample distribution to that of a population
e. Comparison of a sample mean to that of a population one over a time period
4. The one sample t statistic, has a degrees of freedom equal to:
a. Number of observations in sample plus one
b. Number of observations in sample
c. Number of observations in sample minus one
d. Number of observations in sample minus two
e. Number of observations in sample minus three
5. The p value associated with the one sample t statistic, assumes the following:
a. Mean of sample is not equal to the comparator
b. Mean of sample less than that of the comparator
c. Mean of sample greater than that of the comparator
d. Mean of sample and comparator are identical
e. None of the above
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 10 (20 questions)
1) Based on animal studies, the most radiosensitive gestational age in terms of embryonic mortality is approximately:
A. 0-1 weeks
B. 1-4 weeks
C. 4-8 weeks
D. 8-15 weeks
E. 15-40 weeks
2) Which of the following pairs of gestational stage and linked radiation-induced developmental defect is CORRECT?
A. preimplantation – congenital malformations
B. organogenesis – prenatal death
C. early fetal period – mental retardation
D. late fetal period – neonatal death
E. entire gestation period – malformations of the kidney
3) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning ionizing radiation’s effects on the developing embryo or fetus?
A. Irradiation in utero produces stochastic effects, examples of which are prenatal death and congenital malformations.
B. Congenital malformations can be a consequence of irradiation during the organogenesis period.
C. The data obtained for people who were irradiated in utero during the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki support the hypothesis that irradiation during fetal development may cause growth and mental retardation.
D. The dose, dose rate and stage of gestation are important determinants of the type and severity of developmental injury.
E. Ionizing radiation exposure causes a spectrum of developmental defects.
4) Which of the following gestational ages in humans is thought to be the most sensitive time for radiation-induced neonatal death?
A. 0-2 weeks
B. 2-6 weeks
C. 6-15 weeks
D. 15-25 weeks
E. 25-40 weeks
5) A woman begins working at a nuclear power plant on her 18th birthday. According to NCRP guidelines, when she reaches her 20th birthday, she would have been permitted a total work-related lifetime effective dose equivalent of:
A. 5 mSv
B. 50 mSv
C. 100 mSv
D. 200 mSv
E. 300 mSv
A. 0-1 weeks
B. 1-4 weeks
C. 4-8 weeks
D. 8-15 weeks
E. 15-40 weeks
2) Which of the following pairs of gestational stage and linked radiation-induced developmental defect is CORRECT?
A. preimplantation – congenital malformations
B. organogenesis – prenatal death
C. early fetal period – mental retardation
D. late fetal period – neonatal death
E. entire gestation period – malformations of the kidney
3) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning ionizing radiation’s effects on the developing embryo or fetus?
A. Irradiation in utero produces stochastic effects, examples of which are prenatal death and congenital malformations.
B. Congenital malformations can be a consequence of irradiation during the organogenesis period.
C. The data obtained for people who were irradiated in utero during the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki support the hypothesis that irradiation during fetal development may cause growth and mental retardation.
D. The dose, dose rate and stage of gestation are important determinants of the type and severity of developmental injury.
E. Ionizing radiation exposure causes a spectrum of developmental defects.
4) Which of the following gestational ages in humans is thought to be the most sensitive time for radiation-induced neonatal death?
A. 0-2 weeks
B. 2-6 weeks
C. 6-15 weeks
D. 15-25 weeks
E. 25-40 weeks
5) A woman begins working at a nuclear power plant on her 18th birthday. According to NCRP guidelines, when she reaches her 20th birthday, she would have been permitted a total work-related lifetime effective dose equivalent of:
A. 5 mSv
B. 50 mSv
C. 100 mSv
D. 200 mSv
E. 300 mSv
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 9 (17 questions)
1) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the Arrhenius analysis of mammalian cell killing by heat?
A. This analysis suggests proteins as the likely targets for heat-induced cell killing.
B. The break point in the Arrhenius plot reflects the development of thermotolerance.
C. The Arrhenius relationship has been used to define the temperature dependence of the rate of heat-induced cell killing.
D. An Arrhenius curve plots the log of the slopes (1/Do) of heat survival curves as a function of temperature.
E. The break point in the Arrhenius plot occurs at approximately 39°C.
2) Hyperthermia combined with radiation may be effective in cancer therapy because:
A. tumor cells are intrinsically more sensitive to heat than normal cells.
B. hypoxic tumor cells, which may be at a low pH and nutritionally-deprived, exhibit enhanced sensitivity to heat.
C. heat increases the number of ionizations produced by a given dose of radiation.
D. normal tissues tend to retain more heat than tumors.
E. heat can produce maximum radiosensitization even if delivered several days after irradiation.
3) Which of the following statements concerning hyperthermia is TRUE?
A. Heat-induced radiosensitization occurs because heat produces additional DNA damage.
B. Hyperthermia transiently down-regulates genes that encode heat shock proteins.
C. Upon heating, the heat shock transcription factor, HSF1, stimulates production of heat shock proteins.
D. Heat shock proteins facilitate the aggregation of nuclear proteins.
E. Hyperthermia does not induce apoptotic cell death.
4) Which of the following statements concerning thermotolerance is TRUE?
A. Thermotolerance is a heritable resistance to heat-induced cell killing.
B. A brief exposure to a temperature above 43°C results in greater resistance to subsequent heat treatment at a lower temperature due to the development of thermotolerance (“step-down heating”).
C. Thermotolerance develops during the heating of tissues at temperatures higher than 43°C.
D. The onset and decay of thermotolerance correlate with the appearance and disappearance of proteins associated with the repair of heat-induced DNA strand breaks.
E. Heat shock proteins are molecular chaperones.
5) Which of the following statements concerning possible long-term consequences of radiotherapy is FALSE?
A. Because IMRT reduces the total dose received by normal tissues, the risk of second malignancies should also be reduced.
B. Compared to the general population, individuals who survive an initial cancer are at an increased risk for developing a second cancer.
C. There is an increased incidence of second tumors among patients initially treated for soft tissue sarcomas.
D. Radiotherapy to the breast or chest wall of young women is associated with long-term cardiotoxicity and an increased risk of second breast cancers.
A. This analysis suggests proteins as the likely targets for heat-induced cell killing.
B. The break point in the Arrhenius plot reflects the development of thermotolerance.
C. The Arrhenius relationship has been used to define the temperature dependence of the rate of heat-induced cell killing.
D. An Arrhenius curve plots the log of the slopes (1/Do) of heat survival curves as a function of temperature.
E. The break point in the Arrhenius plot occurs at approximately 39°C.
2) Hyperthermia combined with radiation may be effective in cancer therapy because:
A. tumor cells are intrinsically more sensitive to heat than normal cells.
B. hypoxic tumor cells, which may be at a low pH and nutritionally-deprived, exhibit enhanced sensitivity to heat.
C. heat increases the number of ionizations produced by a given dose of radiation.
D. normal tissues tend to retain more heat than tumors.
E. heat can produce maximum radiosensitization even if delivered several days after irradiation.
3) Which of the following statements concerning hyperthermia is TRUE?
A. Heat-induced radiosensitization occurs because heat produces additional DNA damage.
B. Hyperthermia transiently down-regulates genes that encode heat shock proteins.
C. Upon heating, the heat shock transcription factor, HSF1, stimulates production of heat shock proteins.
D. Heat shock proteins facilitate the aggregation of nuclear proteins.
E. Hyperthermia does not induce apoptotic cell death.
4) Which of the following statements concerning thermotolerance is TRUE?
A. Thermotolerance is a heritable resistance to heat-induced cell killing.
B. A brief exposure to a temperature above 43°C results in greater resistance to subsequent heat treatment at a lower temperature due to the development of thermotolerance (“step-down heating”).
C. Thermotolerance develops during the heating of tissues at temperatures higher than 43°C.
D. The onset and decay of thermotolerance correlate with the appearance and disappearance of proteins associated with the repair of heat-induced DNA strand breaks.
E. Heat shock proteins are molecular chaperones.
5) Which of the following statements concerning possible long-term consequences of radiotherapy is FALSE?
A. Because IMRT reduces the total dose received by normal tissues, the risk of second malignancies should also be reduced.
B. Compared to the general population, individuals who survive an initial cancer are at an increased risk for developing a second cancer.
C. There is an increased incidence of second tumors among patients initially treated for soft tissue sarcomas.
D. Radiotherapy to the breast or chest wall of young women is associated with long-term cardiotoxicity and an increased risk of second breast cancers.
Thursday, October 10, 2013
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Medical Statistic 6 (7 questions)
1. The interquartile range includes the following scores?
a. 50% of the un ranked scores
b. 25% of the ranked scores
c. 70% of the rank scores
d. 50% of the ranked scores
e. 70% of the un ranked scores
2. Summing (adding together) all the deviations from the mean produces the following value?
a. half the standard deviation
b. the standard deviation
c. 0
d. the mean value for the set of scores
e. the median value for the set of scores
3. Why does the standard deviation formula have a square root as part of it?
a. to make it add up to the mean
b. to reverse the effect of squaring the deviations
c. to provide a standard (i.e. mean=0; sd=1) unit of measure
d. to provide a smaller value
e. none of these
4. Which of the following Greek letters represents the mean of a population?
a. β
b. α
c. μ
d. ε
e. λ
a. 50% of the un ranked scores
b. 25% of the ranked scores
c. 70% of the rank scores
d. 50% of the ranked scores
e. 70% of the un ranked scores
2. Summing (adding together) all the deviations from the mean produces the following value?
a. half the standard deviation
b. the standard deviation
c. 0
d. the mean value for the set of scores
e. the median value for the set of scores
3. Why does the standard deviation formula have a square root as part of it?
a. to make it add up to the mean
b. to reverse the effect of squaring the deviations
c. to provide a standard (i.e. mean=0; sd=1) unit of measure
d. to provide a smaller value
e. none of these
4. Which of the following Greek letters represents the mean of a population?
a. β
b. α
c. μ
d. ε
e. λ
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Medical Statistic 5 (8 questions)
1. The following four boxplots provide summary information from four datasets. Please answer the following multiple choice questions (MCQs).
I. Which sample has the highest median?
a. Sample1
b. Sample2
c. Sample3
d. Sample4
e. None of them
II. Which sample has a median value of 2?
a. Sample1
b. Sample2
c. Sample3
d. Sample4
e. None of them
III. Which sample has outliers with low scores?
a. Sample1
b. Sample2
c. Sample3
d. Sample4
e. None of them
IV. Which sample has outliers with high scores?
a. Sample1
b. Sample2
c. Sample3
d. Sample4
e. None of them
V. Which sample has 50% of its scores which do not overlap the other sets of scores to a great extent?
a. Sample1
b. Sample2
c. Sample3
d. Sample4
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Medical Statistic 4 (11 questions)
1. What is the main aim of descriptive statistics?
a. Reduce the number of scores to a smaller more typical dataset
b. Create a comparable dataset
c. Reduce the number of scores to one or two values that provide a description of some aspect of the dataset
d. Increase the dataset to represent a population
e. Provide a narrative interpretation of a dataset
2. Which of the following are measures that attempt to describe the typical score of a dataset (3 correct answers)?
a. Deviation
b. Mode
c. Median
d. Mean
e. Residual
f. Range
g. Frequency
3. Which of the following provides the best definition of a frequency when the term is applied to a dataset?
a. The number of occurrences for a range of values that a variable takes in a data set
b. The number of occurrences for zero values that a variable takes in a data set
c. The number of occurrences for one, or a range of values that a variable takes in a data set
d. The number of occurrences for the mean value that a variable takes in a data set
e. The number of occurrences of inappropriate values that a variable takes in a data set
4. Which of the following provides the best definition of the term relative frequency when the term is applied to a dataset?
a. The same as the percentage for a particular value a variable may take in a dataset
b. The number of occurrences of the mean value that a variable takes in a data set divided by the total number of scores in the dataset
c. The number of occurrences for one, or a range of values that a variable takes in a data set divided by the total number of scores in the dataset
d. The number of occurrences of negative deviations divided by the total number of scores in the dataset
e. The number of occurrences of positive deviations divided by the total number of scores in the dataset
5. For which type of data is the mode the most appropriate descriptive statistic?
a. Ordinal
b. Interval/ Ratio
c. Nominal
d. Textual
e. Quantitative
a. Reduce the number of scores to a smaller more typical dataset
b. Create a comparable dataset
c. Reduce the number of scores to one or two values that provide a description of some aspect of the dataset
d. Increase the dataset to represent a population
e. Provide a narrative interpretation of a dataset
2. Which of the following are measures that attempt to describe the typical score of a dataset (3 correct answers)?
a. Deviation
b. Mode
c. Median
d. Mean
e. Residual
f. Range
g. Frequency
3. Which of the following provides the best definition of a frequency when the term is applied to a dataset?
a. The number of occurrences for a range of values that a variable takes in a data set
b. The number of occurrences for zero values that a variable takes in a data set
c. The number of occurrences for one, or a range of values that a variable takes in a data set
d. The number of occurrences for the mean value that a variable takes in a data set
e. The number of occurrences of inappropriate values that a variable takes in a data set
4. Which of the following provides the best definition of the term relative frequency when the term is applied to a dataset?
a. The same as the percentage for a particular value a variable may take in a dataset
b. The number of occurrences of the mean value that a variable takes in a data set divided by the total number of scores in the dataset
c. The number of occurrences for one, or a range of values that a variable takes in a data set divided by the total number of scores in the dataset
d. The number of occurrences of negative deviations divided by the total number of scores in the dataset
e. The number of occurrences of positive deviations divided by the total number of scores in the dataset
5. For which type of data is the mode the most appropriate descriptive statistic?
a. Ordinal
b. Interval/ Ratio
c. Nominal
d. Textual
e. Quantitative
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Medical Statistic 3 (5 questions)
1. Which of the following is an example of nominal data?
a. Number of people on a course
b. Cancer staging scale
c. List of different species of bird visiting a garden over the past week
d. Popularity rating of UK top ten television programmes
e. Heart rate
2. Which of the following are examples of Interval/Ratio data? (2 correct choices)
a. Number of people on a course
b. Cancer staging scale
c. List of different species of bird visiting a garden over the past week
d. Popularity rating of UK top ten television programmes
e. Heart rate
3. Which of the following are examples of Ordinal data? (2 correct choices)
a. Number of people on a course
b. Cancer staging scale
c. List of different species of bird visiting a garden over the past week
d. Popularity rating of UK top ten television programmes
e. Heart rate
a. Number of people on a course
b. Cancer staging scale
c. List of different species of bird visiting a garden over the past week
d. Popularity rating of UK top ten television programmes
e. Heart rate
2. Which of the following are examples of Interval/Ratio data? (2 correct choices)
a. Number of people on a course
b. Cancer staging scale
c. List of different species of bird visiting a garden over the past week
d. Popularity rating of UK top ten television programmes
e. Heart rate
3. Which of the following are examples of Ordinal data? (2 correct choices)
a. Number of people on a course
b. Cancer staging scale
c. List of different species of bird visiting a garden over the past week
d. Popularity rating of UK top ten television programmes
e. Heart rate
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 8 (24 questions)
1) You have been asked to recommend a treatment modality for a patient with chondrosarcoma. Carbon ions, currently available in Germany and Japan, may provide a therapeutic advantage over either IMRT or proton therapy for this disease. Which of the following statements about carbon ion therapy is FALSE?
A. Carbon ions produce better sparing of normal tissues in the entrance region of the beam for a given dose to the tumor in the Bragg peak, than either protons or photons.
B. Carbon ions have a high RBE in the Bragg peak region.
C. There is reduced scattering in both the lateral and longitudinal directions for carbon ions compared to protons.
D. There is a greater variation in radiosensitivity between oxygenated and hypoxic tumor cells using carbon ions compared with photons.
E. PET verification can be used for carbon ion treatment plans.
2) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning boron neutron capture therapy?
A. The boron-neutron interaction results in pair production.
B. Fast neutrons of approximately 10-20 MeV are required in order to maximize the interaction.
C. Boron interacts with neutrons to produce α particles and lithium ions.
D. Protons may be used in place of neutrons since the interaction with boron is the same.
E. Recoil protons are produced when boron interacts with neutrons.
3) Which of the following statements comparing proton with neutron radiotherapy is TRUE?
A. The LET is higher for protons.
B. More conformal dose distributions can be obtained with neutrons than protons.
C. The OER is lower for neutrons.
D. The α/β ratio is higher for protons.
E. The RBE is higher for protons.
4) Which of the following statements concerning IMRT is CORRECT? IMRT:
A. is expected to result in fewer radiation-induced second cancers since a greater volume of normal tissue is exposed to low radiation doses than in conventional treatment plans.
B. might result in a decreased tumor control probability if the time to deliver each dose fraction becomes sufficiently long as to permit recovery from sublethal damage in the tumor.
C. allows for higher doses to acutely responding normal tissues while decreasing dose to late responding normal tissues.
D. is best if used in a hypofractionation regimen, such as two fractions a week.
E. is useful only when coupled with respiratory gating.
5) Which of the following is a small molecule tyrosine kinase inhibitor?
A. trastuzumab
B. erlotinib
C. bevacizumab
D. sirolimnus
E. cetuximab
A. Carbon ions produce better sparing of normal tissues in the entrance region of the beam for a given dose to the tumor in the Bragg peak, than either protons or photons.
B. Carbon ions have a high RBE in the Bragg peak region.
C. There is reduced scattering in both the lateral and longitudinal directions for carbon ions compared to protons.
D. There is a greater variation in radiosensitivity between oxygenated and hypoxic tumor cells using carbon ions compared with photons.
E. PET verification can be used for carbon ion treatment plans.
2) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning boron neutron capture therapy?
A. The boron-neutron interaction results in pair production.
B. Fast neutrons of approximately 10-20 MeV are required in order to maximize the interaction.
C. Boron interacts with neutrons to produce α particles and lithium ions.
D. Protons may be used in place of neutrons since the interaction with boron is the same.
E. Recoil protons are produced when boron interacts with neutrons.
3) Which of the following statements comparing proton with neutron radiotherapy is TRUE?
A. The LET is higher for protons.
B. More conformal dose distributions can be obtained with neutrons than protons.
C. The OER is lower for neutrons.
D. The α/β ratio is higher for protons.
E. The RBE is higher for protons.
4) Which of the following statements concerning IMRT is CORRECT? IMRT:
A. is expected to result in fewer radiation-induced second cancers since a greater volume of normal tissue is exposed to low radiation doses than in conventional treatment plans.
B. might result in a decreased tumor control probability if the time to deliver each dose fraction becomes sufficiently long as to permit recovery from sublethal damage in the tumor.
C. allows for higher doses to acutely responding normal tissues while decreasing dose to late responding normal tissues.
D. is best if used in a hypofractionation regimen, such as two fractions a week.
E. is useful only when coupled with respiratory gating.
5) Which of the following is a small molecule tyrosine kinase inhibitor?
A. trastuzumab
B. erlotinib
C. bevacizumab
D. sirolimnus
E. cetuximab
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 7 (27 questions)
1) The tolerance doses for the kidney and lung are highly dependent on the volume of tissue irradiated. Both of these normal tissues are very sensitive to irradiation of their entire volume. In contrast, small volumes can be irradiated to high doses without loss of function. All of the following explanations are consistent with this observation, EXCEPT, that:
A. both organs have considerable reserve capacity
B. these organs have functional subunits arranged in series
C. a functional deficit is not observed in these organs until a critical number of functional subunits are inactivated by exposure to radiation
D. above a certain threshold dose, radiation injury is usually expressed as a graded response rather than as an all or nothing response
2) The influence of field size on the severity of radiation reactions in normal tissues is a reflection of the ability of surviving clonogens to migrate from the surrounding tissue into the irradiated volume. With regard to this phenomenon, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Tissues comprised of structually defined functional subunits arranged in parallel are best able to take advantage of the migration of clonogens from outside the irradiation field.
B. Tissues with a high capacity for clonogen migration exhibit a decrease in tolerance dose with increasing field size above about 1 cm.
C. The kidney is an example of an organ tissue in which the FSUs are anatomically and structurally defined.
D. Examples of tissues with a high clonogen migratory capacity include intestinal epithelium, spinal cord and skin.
3) Assuming that there is no intrinsic difference in the radiosensitivities of tumor versus normal cells other than the presence of hypoxic cells in the tumor, which of the following properties of a novel drug in combination with fractionated radiotherapy would improve the therapeutic ratio?
A. stimulation of repair in hypoxic cells
B. inhibition of reoxygenation
C. radioprotection of aerobic cells
D. inhibition of repair in aerobic cells
E. stimulation of repopulation in hypoxic cells
4) A 1 cm-diameter tumor that contains 107 clonogenic cells is irradiated with daily dose fractions of 1.8 Gy. The effective dose response curve has been determined and is exponential with a D10 of 8 Gy. What total dose will correspond to the TCD90 (90% probability of tumor control), assuming no cell proliferation between dose fractions?
A. 32 Gy
B. 40 Gy
C. 48 Gy
D. 56 Gy
E. 64 Gy
5) Based on the information presented in the previous question, what would be the TCD90 if a surgical excision removed 99% of the tumor clonogens prior to radiotherapy (assume that the surgery did not otherwise affect the growth fraction of the tumor).
A. 24 Gy
B. 32 Gy
C. 40 Gy
D. 48 Gy
E. 56 Gy
A. both organs have considerable reserve capacity
B. these organs have functional subunits arranged in series
C. a functional deficit is not observed in these organs until a critical number of functional subunits are inactivated by exposure to radiation
D. above a certain threshold dose, radiation injury is usually expressed as a graded response rather than as an all or nothing response
2) The influence of field size on the severity of radiation reactions in normal tissues is a reflection of the ability of surviving clonogens to migrate from the surrounding tissue into the irradiated volume. With regard to this phenomenon, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Tissues comprised of structually defined functional subunits arranged in parallel are best able to take advantage of the migration of clonogens from outside the irradiation field.
B. Tissues with a high capacity for clonogen migration exhibit a decrease in tolerance dose with increasing field size above about 1 cm.
C. The kidney is an example of an organ tissue in which the FSUs are anatomically and structurally defined.
D. Examples of tissues with a high clonogen migratory capacity include intestinal epithelium, spinal cord and skin.
3) Assuming that there is no intrinsic difference in the radiosensitivities of tumor versus normal cells other than the presence of hypoxic cells in the tumor, which of the following properties of a novel drug in combination with fractionated radiotherapy would improve the therapeutic ratio?
A. stimulation of repair in hypoxic cells
B. inhibition of reoxygenation
C. radioprotection of aerobic cells
D. inhibition of repair in aerobic cells
E. stimulation of repopulation in hypoxic cells
4) A 1 cm-diameter tumor that contains 107 clonogenic cells is irradiated with daily dose fractions of 1.8 Gy. The effective dose response curve has been determined and is exponential with a D10 of 8 Gy. What total dose will correspond to the TCD90 (90% probability of tumor control), assuming no cell proliferation between dose fractions?
A. 32 Gy
B. 40 Gy
C. 48 Gy
D. 56 Gy
E. 64 Gy
5) Based on the information presented in the previous question, what would be the TCD90 if a surgical excision removed 99% of the tumor clonogens prior to radiotherapy (assume that the surgery did not otherwise affect the growth fraction of the tumor).
A. 24 Gy
B. 32 Gy
C. 40 Gy
D. 48 Gy
E. 56 Gy
Monday, October 7, 2013
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 6 (35 questions)
1) An employee working in a nuclear power plant is accidentally exposed to a total body γ-ray dose of 2 Gy. Ten days after the accident, you draw blood and submit it for hematologic analysis. Which of the following would you expect to see?
A. A drop in hemoglobin concentration and platelet counts.
B. A drop in platelet count and an increase in lymphocyte count.
C. A drop in lymphocyte count but no effect on hemoglobin concentration.
D. An increase in the number of neutrophils but no effect on hemoglobin concentration.
E. No effect on lymphocytes, hemoglobin, neutrophils or platelets.
2) A terrorist preparing a “dirty bomb” containing 210Po received a total body dose equivalent of approximately 8 Sv resulting from an accidental ingestion of this radioisotope. He did not seek medical attention and died 7 days later from acute radiation toxicity. Which of the following would you expect to see at autopsy?
A. bone marrow aplasia
B. mitotic arrest of intestinal crypt cells
C. cerebral edema
D. microvasculitis
E. necrosis of neurons
3) Which of the following pairs of total body radiation effects and approximate threshold dose is CORRECT?
A. gastrointestinal syndrome – 2 Gy
B. LD50 (no medical intervention) – 3.5 Gy
C. LD50 (best current medical treatment) – 15 Gy
D. cerebrovascular syndrome – 5 Gy
E. hematopoietic syndrome – 0.2 Gy
4) The death of a person 30-60 days following a total body radiation dose close to the LD50 would likely be due to damage to the:
A. heart
B. bone marrow
C. central nervous system
D. brain
E. gastrointestinal system
5) The prodromal radiation syndrome following total body irradiation:
A. is not seen unless doses exceed 10 Gy
B. occurs after the exposed person has recovered from the GI syndrome
C. can be ameliorated through treatment with amifostine approximately 3-5 hours after the exposure
D. includes GI symptoms such as anorexia, nausea and vomiting that occur within minutes to hours following exposure and lasting hours to days, depending on the radiation dose
E. is characterized by hematopoietic system damage, but no effects related to the gastrointestinal system
A. A drop in hemoglobin concentration and platelet counts.
B. A drop in platelet count and an increase in lymphocyte count.
C. A drop in lymphocyte count but no effect on hemoglobin concentration.
D. An increase in the number of neutrophils but no effect on hemoglobin concentration.
E. No effect on lymphocytes, hemoglobin, neutrophils or platelets.
2) A terrorist preparing a “dirty bomb” containing 210Po received a total body dose equivalent of approximately 8 Sv resulting from an accidental ingestion of this radioisotope. He did not seek medical attention and died 7 days later from acute radiation toxicity. Which of the following would you expect to see at autopsy?
A. bone marrow aplasia
B. mitotic arrest of intestinal crypt cells
C. cerebral edema
D. microvasculitis
E. necrosis of neurons
3) Which of the following pairs of total body radiation effects and approximate threshold dose is CORRECT?
A. gastrointestinal syndrome – 2 Gy
B. LD50 (no medical intervention) – 3.5 Gy
C. LD50 (best current medical treatment) – 15 Gy
D. cerebrovascular syndrome – 5 Gy
E. hematopoietic syndrome – 0.2 Gy
4) The death of a person 30-60 days following a total body radiation dose close to the LD50 would likely be due to damage to the:
A. heart
B. bone marrow
C. central nervous system
D. brain
E. gastrointestinal system
5) The prodromal radiation syndrome following total body irradiation:
A. is not seen unless doses exceed 10 Gy
B. occurs after the exposed person has recovered from the GI syndrome
C. can be ameliorated through treatment with amifostine approximately 3-5 hours after the exposure
D. includes GI symptoms such as anorexia, nausea and vomiting that occur within minutes to hours following exposure and lasting hours to days, depending on the radiation dose
E. is characterized by hematopoietic system damage, but no effects related to the gastrointestinal system
Sunday, October 6, 2013
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Pharmacology 5 (16 questions)
1. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism
2. Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
3. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
4. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a drug which develops in a few minutes?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
5. Tachyphylaxis is:
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
d) None of the above
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism
2. Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
3. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
4. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a drug which develops in a few minutes?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
5. Tachyphylaxis is:
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
d) None of the above
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Pharmacology 4 (19 questions)
1. What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier?
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
2. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b) An administrated dose to a body weight
c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
3. For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account:
a) Concentration of a substance in plasma
b) Concentration of substance in urine
c) Therapeutical width of drug action
d) A daily dose of drug
4. The term “biotransformation” includes the following:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
5. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
2. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b) An administrated dose to a body weight
c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
3. For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account:
a) Concentration of a substance in plasma
b) Concentration of substance in urine
c) Therapeutical width of drug action
d) A daily dose of drug
4. The term “biotransformation” includes the following:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
5. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Pharmacology 3 (3 questions)
1. Which of the following chemotherapy drug is likely to be toxic to gonads?
a. Adriamycin
b. Vinblastine
c. Paclitaxel
d. Procarbazine
2. High dose chemotherapy given prior to stem cell transplant may be associated with gonadal failure. Risk is least with the use of
a. Busulfan + cyclophosphamide
b. Cyclophosphamide + TBI
c. Ifosfamide +carboplatin+ Etoposide
d. Fludarabine + ATG
a. Adriamycin
b. Vinblastine
c. Paclitaxel
d. Procarbazine
2. High dose chemotherapy given prior to stem cell transplant may be associated with gonadal failure. Risk is least with the use of
a. Busulfan + cyclophosphamide
b. Cyclophosphamide + TBI
c. Ifosfamide +carboplatin+ Etoposide
d. Fludarabine + ATG
Thursday, October 3, 2013
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Medical Statistic 2 (15 questions)
1. A randomized experiment was done by randomly assigning each participant either to walk for half an hour three times a week or to sit quietly reading a book for half an hour three times a week. At the end of a year the change in participants' blood pressure over the year was measured, and the change was compared for the two groups.
If a statistically significant difference in blood pressure change at the end of a year for the two activities was found, then:
a. It cannot be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in blood pressure because in the course of a year there are lots of possible confounding variables.
b. Whether or not the difference was caused by the difference in activity depends on what else the participants did during the year.
c. It cannot be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in blood pressure because it might be the opposite, that people with high blood pressure were more likely to read a book than to walk.
d. It can be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in blood pressure because of the way the study was done.
2. What is one of the distinctions between a population parameter and a sample statistic?
a. A population parameter is only based on conceptual measurements, but a sample statistic is based on a combination of real and conceptual measurements.
b. A sample statistic changes each time you try to measure it, but a population parameter remains fixed.
c. A population parameter changes each time you try to measure it, but a sample statistic remains fixed across samples.
d. The true value of a sample statistic can never be known but the true value of a population parameter can be known.
3. A magazine printed a survey in its monthly issue and asked readers to fill it out and send it in. Over 1000 readers did so. This type of sample is called
a. a cluster sample.
b. a self-selected sample.
c. a stratified sample.
d. a simple random sample.
4. Which of the following would be most likely to produce selection bias in a survey?
a. Using questions with biased wording.
b. Only receiving responses from half of the people in the sample.
c. Conducting interviews by telephone instead of in person.
d. Using a random sample of students at a university to estimate the proportion of people
who think the legal drinking age should be lowered.
5. Which one of the following variables is not categorical?
a. Age of a person.
b. Gender of a person: male or female.
c. Choice on a test item: true or false.
d. Marital status of a person (single, married, divorced, other)
If a statistically significant difference in blood pressure change at the end of a year for the two activities was found, then:
a. It cannot be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in blood pressure because in the course of a year there are lots of possible confounding variables.
b. Whether or not the difference was caused by the difference in activity depends on what else the participants did during the year.
c. It cannot be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in blood pressure because it might be the opposite, that people with high blood pressure were more likely to read a book than to walk.
d. It can be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in blood pressure because of the way the study was done.
2. What is one of the distinctions between a population parameter and a sample statistic?
a. A population parameter is only based on conceptual measurements, but a sample statistic is based on a combination of real and conceptual measurements.
b. A sample statistic changes each time you try to measure it, but a population parameter remains fixed.
c. A population parameter changes each time you try to measure it, but a sample statistic remains fixed across samples.
d. The true value of a sample statistic can never be known but the true value of a population parameter can be known.
3. A magazine printed a survey in its monthly issue and asked readers to fill it out and send it in. Over 1000 readers did so. This type of sample is called
a. a cluster sample.
b. a self-selected sample.
c. a stratified sample.
d. a simple random sample.
4. Which of the following would be most likely to produce selection bias in a survey?
a. Using questions with biased wording.
b. Only receiving responses from half of the people in the sample.
c. Conducting interviews by telephone instead of in person.
d. Using a random sample of students at a university to estimate the proportion of people
who think the legal drinking age should be lowered.
5. Which one of the following variables is not categorical?
a. Age of a person.
b. Gender of a person: male or female.
c. Choice on a test item: true or false.
d. Marital status of a person (single, married, divorced, other)
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 5 (31 questions)
1) Which of the following pairs of CDKs or cyclins is associated with the correct phase transition?
A. CDK1 (CDC2) – G2 into M
B. CDK4 – S into G2
C. cyclin A – G2 into M
D. cyclin B – S into G2
E. cyclin D – M into G1
2) Irradiation of an exponentially-growing population of cells in culture with a dose equal to the D10 tends to synchronize the surviving cells (initially) in which phase of the cell cycle?
A. G0
B. G1
C. S
D. G2
E. M
3) The typical cell cycle time (TC) for proliferating cells in human tumors is in the range of:
A. <1 day
B. 1-5 days
C. 6-25 days
D. 26-100 days
E. >100 days
4) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning tumor growth kinetic parameters?
A. Often, the cell loss factor (φ) decreases several weeks after the start of radiotherapy.
B. The growth fraction (GF) is the ratio of the number of viable cells to the sum of viable and non-viable cells.
C. If the volume doubling time (TD) is 60 days and the potential doubling time (Tpot) is 3 days, then the cell loss factor is 5%.
D. Tpot has proven useful in predicting tumor response to accelerated radiotherapy.
E. Typically, the cell loss factor, φ, is of minor importance in determining a tumor’s volume doubling time.
5) Eponentially growing cells are pulse-labeled with tritiated thymidine and sampled as a function of time thereafter.The time required for the percent of labeled mitoses to reach 50% of its maximum value corresponds to approximately:
A. TS
B. TC
C. TG2
D. TG1 + TS/2
E. TG2 + TM/2
A. CDK1 (CDC2) – G2 into M
B. CDK4 – S into G2
C. cyclin A – G2 into M
D. cyclin B – S into G2
E. cyclin D – M into G1
2) Irradiation of an exponentially-growing population of cells in culture with a dose equal to the D10 tends to synchronize the surviving cells (initially) in which phase of the cell cycle?
A. G0
B. G1
C. S
D. G2
E. M
3) The typical cell cycle time (TC) for proliferating cells in human tumors is in the range of:
A. <1 day
B. 1-5 days
C. 6-25 days
D. 26-100 days
E. >100 days
4) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning tumor growth kinetic parameters?
A. Often, the cell loss factor (φ) decreases several weeks after the start of radiotherapy.
B. The growth fraction (GF) is the ratio of the number of viable cells to the sum of viable and non-viable cells.
C. If the volume doubling time (TD) is 60 days and the potential doubling time (Tpot) is 3 days, then the cell loss factor is 5%.
D. Tpot has proven useful in predicting tumor response to accelerated radiotherapy.
E. Typically, the cell loss factor, φ, is of minor importance in determining a tumor’s volume doubling time.
5) Eponentially growing cells are pulse-labeled with tritiated thymidine and sampled as a function of time thereafter.The time required for the percent of labeled mitoses to reach 50% of its maximum value corresponds to approximately:
A. TS
B. TC
C. TG2
D. TG1 + TS/2
E. TG2 + TM/2
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Medical Statistic 1 (16 questions)
1. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ___.
a. a constant
b. a variable
c. a cause-and-effect relationship
d. a descriptive relationship
2. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):
a. categorical variable
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable
d. intervening variable
3. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:
a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. it uses the deductive scientific method
d. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment
4. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except:
a. it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest
b. it relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as words and pictures
c. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the world
d. it uses the inductive scientific method
5. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. extraneous variables are never present
b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists
d. manipulation of the independent variable
a. a constant
b. a variable
c. a cause-and-effect relationship
d. a descriptive relationship
2. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):
a. categorical variable
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable
d. intervening variable
3. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:
a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. it uses the deductive scientific method
d. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment
4. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except:
a. it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest
b. it relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as words and pictures
c. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the world
d. it uses the inductive scientific method
5. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. extraneous variables are never present
b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists
d. manipulation of the independent variable
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 4 (19 questions)
1) For an exponentially-growing, asynchronous population of cells maintained under normal physiological conditions, which of the following statements concerning the effect of X-rays on clonogenic cell survival is INCORRECT? Cell killing is reduced if:
A. the cells are synchronized in S-phase at the time of irradiation
B. the cells are irradiated under hypoxic conditions
C. the cells are irradiated with the dose split into two fractions with a 24 hour interval between fractions rather than an acute exposure to the same total dose
D. the cells had incorporated bromodeoxyuridine into their DNA prior to irradiation
E. cysteine was added to the cellular growth medium before irradiation
2) For irradiation with X-rays, the increased cell survival observed when a given total dose is delivered at a low dose-rate (~1 Gy/hr) versus high dose-rate (~1 Gy/min) is due primarily to:
A. repair of DNA double-strand breaks
B. decreased production of DNA double-strand breaks
C. induction of free radical scavengers
D. activation of cell cycle checkpoints
E. down-regulation of apoptosis
3) Relative to the surviving fraction of cells maintained in a non-cycling state for several hours after irradiation, the decreased cell survival observed in cells forced to re-enter the cell cycle immediately after irradiation is evidence for:
A. rejoining of chromosome breaks
B. sublethal damage recovery
C. cell cycle reassortment
D. translesion DNA synthesis
E. expression of potentially lethal damage
4) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the effect on cell survival when a total dose of 5 Gy is delivered at a high (1 Gy/min) versus low (1 Gy/hr) dose rate?
A. The surviving fraction would change the least for a cell line with a radiation survival curve characterized by a low α/β ratio.
B. Treatment of cells during the course of irradiation with an agent capable of inhibiting DNA repair would likely have a greater impact on the surviving fraction for cells irradiated at the high dose rate.
C. More cell killing occurs for irradiation at the high dose rate.
D. A change in the surviving fraction results primarily from repopulation.
E. The total number of ionizations produced decreases.
5) A split dose experiment was performed using exponentially growing cells maintained at 37oC in 95% air/5% CO2, and irradiated with either a single dose of 8 Gy of X-rays or two 4 Gy fractions separated by either 2 hours or 8 hours. The surviving fractions for the three treatments were 0.02, 0.15 and 0.08, respectively. The two processes that best account for these experimental findings are:
A. reassortment and repopulation
B. repair and reassortment
C. reoxygenation and repair
D. repopulation and reassortment
E. repair and reoxygenation
A. the cells are synchronized in S-phase at the time of irradiation
B. the cells are irradiated under hypoxic conditions
C. the cells are irradiated with the dose split into two fractions with a 24 hour interval between fractions rather than an acute exposure to the same total dose
D. the cells had incorporated bromodeoxyuridine into their DNA prior to irradiation
E. cysteine was added to the cellular growth medium before irradiation
2) For irradiation with X-rays, the increased cell survival observed when a given total dose is delivered at a low dose-rate (~1 Gy/hr) versus high dose-rate (~1 Gy/min) is due primarily to:
A. repair of DNA double-strand breaks
B. decreased production of DNA double-strand breaks
C. induction of free radical scavengers
D. activation of cell cycle checkpoints
E. down-regulation of apoptosis
3) Relative to the surviving fraction of cells maintained in a non-cycling state for several hours after irradiation, the decreased cell survival observed in cells forced to re-enter the cell cycle immediately after irradiation is evidence for:
A. rejoining of chromosome breaks
B. sublethal damage recovery
C. cell cycle reassortment
D. translesion DNA synthesis
E. expression of potentially lethal damage
4) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the effect on cell survival when a total dose of 5 Gy is delivered at a high (1 Gy/min) versus low (1 Gy/hr) dose rate?
A. The surviving fraction would change the least for a cell line with a radiation survival curve characterized by a low α/β ratio.
B. Treatment of cells during the course of irradiation with an agent capable of inhibiting DNA repair would likely have a greater impact on the surviving fraction for cells irradiated at the high dose rate.
C. More cell killing occurs for irradiation at the high dose rate.
D. A change in the surviving fraction results primarily from repopulation.
E. The total number of ionizations produced decreases.
5) A split dose experiment was performed using exponentially growing cells maintained at 37oC in 95% air/5% CO2, and irradiated with either a single dose of 8 Gy of X-rays or two 4 Gy fractions separated by either 2 hours or 8 hours. The surviving fractions for the three treatments were 0.02, 0.15 and 0.08, respectively. The two processes that best account for these experimental findings are:
A. reassortment and repopulation
B. repair and reassortment
C. reoxygenation and repair
D. repopulation and reassortment
E. repair and reoxygenation
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Pharmacology 2 (20 questions)
1. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions
2. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?
a) Mechanisms of drug action
b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
c) Distribution of drugs in the organism
d) Excretion of drug from the organism
3. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?
a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
4. Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”
a) All types of ion channels modulated by a drug
b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug
c) Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to combine with in order to elicit its specific effect
d) Carriers activated by a drug
5. What does “affinity” mean?
a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions
2. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?
a) Mechanisms of drug action
b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
c) Distribution of drugs in the organism
d) Excretion of drug from the organism
3. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?
a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
4. Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”
a) All types of ion channels modulated by a drug
b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug
c) Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to combine with in order to elicit its specific effect
d) Carriers activated by a drug
5. What does “affinity” mean?
a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Pharmacology 1 (19 questions)
1. Pharmacokinetics is:
a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug development
2. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Complications of drug therapy
b) Drug biotransformation in the organism
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d) Influence of drugs on genes
3. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism
4. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
d) Interaction of substances
5. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug development
2. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Complications of drug therapy
b) Drug biotransformation in the organism
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d) Influence of drugs on genes
3. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism
4. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
d) Interaction of substances
5. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
Wednesday, October 2, 2013
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 3 (25 questions)
1) If a cell line exhibiting a strictly exponential radiation survival curve is exposed to a dose that produces an average of one lethal “hit” per cell, the surviving fraction after this dose would be approximately:
A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 0.37
D. 0.5
E. 0.9
2) The α/β ratio is equal to the:
A. surviving fraction at which the amount of cell killing caused by the induction of irreparable damage equals the amount of cell killing caused by the accumulation of sublethal damage
B. optimal fraction size to use in a fractionated regimen
C. dose below which a further decrease in fraction size will not affect the surviving fraction for a particular total dose
D. Dq
E. dose at which the αD component of cell kill is equal to the βD2 contribution to cell killing
3) A cell line characterized by a high apoptotic index after irradiation will:
A. have a relatively high α/β ratio
B. show substantial sparing with dose fractionation
C. be characterized by a large survival curve shoulder
D. have a much greater D0 than D37
E. be relatively resistant to high LET radiation
4) Cells from individuals diagnosed with which of the following diseases would be expected to display a X-ray survival curve with the largest D0?
A. Nijmegen breakage syndrome
B. LIG4 syndrome
C. ATR-Seckel syndrome
D. Xeroderma pigmentosum
E. Ataxia telangiectasia
5) Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning cell survival curve analysis?
A. The β parameter generally increases as the radiation dose rate decreases.
B. The inverse of the Dq corresponds to the final slope of the survival curve.
C. The extrapolation number, n, of a survival curve increases with increasing LET of the radiation.
D. D0 is a measure of the incremental increase in cell survival when a given dose is fractionated.
E. If n = 1, then D37 = D0
A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 0.37
D. 0.5
E. 0.9
2) The α/β ratio is equal to the:
A. surviving fraction at which the amount of cell killing caused by the induction of irreparable damage equals the amount of cell killing caused by the accumulation of sublethal damage
B. optimal fraction size to use in a fractionated regimen
C. dose below which a further decrease in fraction size will not affect the surviving fraction for a particular total dose
D. Dq
E. dose at which the αD component of cell kill is equal to the βD2 contribution to cell killing
3) A cell line characterized by a high apoptotic index after irradiation will:
A. have a relatively high α/β ratio
B. show substantial sparing with dose fractionation
C. be characterized by a large survival curve shoulder
D. have a much greater D0 than D37
E. be relatively resistant to high LET radiation
4) Cells from individuals diagnosed with which of the following diseases would be expected to display a X-ray survival curve with the largest D0?
A. Nijmegen breakage syndrome
B. LIG4 syndrome
C. ATR-Seckel syndrome
D. Xeroderma pigmentosum
E. Ataxia telangiectasia
5) Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning cell survival curve analysis?
A. The β parameter generally increases as the radiation dose rate decreases.
B. The inverse of the Dq corresponds to the final slope of the survival curve.
C. The extrapolation number, n, of a survival curve increases with increasing LET of the radiation.
D. D0 is a measure of the incremental increase in cell survival when a given dose is fractionated.
E. If n = 1, then D37 = D0
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 2 (25 questions)
1) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning chromosomal aberrations in cells after whole body X-irradiation?
A. The formation of terminal deletions follows an exponential dose response.
B. Translocations are an unstable type of chromosome aberration.
C. The number of dicentric chromosomes detected in peripheral blood lymphocytes remains relatively constant with time.
D. SKY (spectral karyotyping) is a useful method for detection of stable aberrations decades following irradiation.
E. The minimum dose that can be estimated by scoring dicentric chromosomes is 2 Gy.
2) Which of the following types of chromosome aberrations is most responsible for the formation of micronuclei observed after irradiation?
A. sister chromatid exchanges
B. chromatid gaps
C. inversions
D. quadriradials
E. acentric fragments
3) Telomere shortening in primary human fibroblasts ultimately results in:
A. chromosomal fusion
B. cell necrosis
C. replicative cell senescence
D. genomic instability
E. neoplastic transformation
4) Which of the following is the best measure for the presence of radiation-induced chromosome aberrations in interphase cells?
A. reciprocal translocations
B. ring chromosomes
C. dicentric chromosomes
D. micronuclei
E. chromatid breaks
5) Which one of the following statements concerning the induction of chromosome aberrations is INCORRECT?
A. Primary radiation-induced breaks can reconstitute without apparent morphological change to the chromosome, rejoin illegitimately with another break site to produce an intra- or inter-chromosomal aberration, or remain “open,” leading to a simple break.
B. There is compelling evidence that the induction and interaction of DNA double-strand breaks is the principal mechanism for the production of chromosome aberrations.
C. Dicentrics, centric rings, and translocations are formed following X-irradiation of cells in the G0/G1 phase of the cell cycle, and follow a linear-quadratic dose response.
D. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) using multi-colored probes has allowed chromosome aberration complexity to be studied in detail.
E. Chromatid type aberrations are observed when cells are irradiated during the G1 phase of the cell cycle.
A. The formation of terminal deletions follows an exponential dose response.
B. Translocations are an unstable type of chromosome aberration.
C. The number of dicentric chromosomes detected in peripheral blood lymphocytes remains relatively constant with time.
D. SKY (spectral karyotyping) is a useful method for detection of stable aberrations decades following irradiation.
E. The minimum dose that can be estimated by scoring dicentric chromosomes is 2 Gy.
2) Which of the following types of chromosome aberrations is most responsible for the formation of micronuclei observed after irradiation?
A. sister chromatid exchanges
B. chromatid gaps
C. inversions
D. quadriradials
E. acentric fragments
3) Telomere shortening in primary human fibroblasts ultimately results in:
A. chromosomal fusion
B. cell necrosis
C. replicative cell senescence
D. genomic instability
E. neoplastic transformation
4) Which of the following is the best measure for the presence of radiation-induced chromosome aberrations in interphase cells?
A. reciprocal translocations
B. ring chromosomes
C. dicentric chromosomes
D. micronuclei
E. chromatid breaks
5) Which one of the following statements concerning the induction of chromosome aberrations is INCORRECT?
A. Primary radiation-induced breaks can reconstitute without apparent morphological change to the chromosome, rejoin illegitimately with another break site to produce an intra- or inter-chromosomal aberration, or remain “open,” leading to a simple break.
B. There is compelling evidence that the induction and interaction of DNA double-strand breaks is the principal mechanism for the production of chromosome aberrations.
C. Dicentrics, centric rings, and translocations are formed following X-irradiation of cells in the G0/G1 phase of the cell cycle, and follow a linear-quadratic dose response.
D. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) using multi-colored probes has allowed chromosome aberration complexity to be studied in detail.
E. Chromatid type aberrations are observed when cells are irradiated during the G1 phase of the cell cycle.
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Cancer Biology and Radiobiology 1 (23 questions)
1) Which one of the following statements concerning the interaction of photons with matter is CORRECT?
A. The probability of the photoelectric effect decreases with the atomic number of the absorber.
B. The predominant interaction of 10 keV photons with soft tissue is the Compton process.
C. In the Compton process, the energy of the scattered photon is less than that of the incident photon.
D. Pair production occurs for photons with energies less than 1.02 MeV.
E. There is only partial absorption of the energy of the incident photon in the photoelectric effect.
2) Which one of the following is a radiolysis product of water responsible for 2/3-3/4 of the molecular damage caused by the indirect action of ionizing radiation?
A. eaq
B. 1O2
C. OH-
D. OH•
E. O2-
3) The approximate minimum photon energy required to cause ionization is:
A. 10-25 eV
B. 100-250 eV
C. 1-2.5 keV
D. 10-25 keV
E. 100-250 keV
4) Which of the following statements concerning free radicals is INCORRECT? Free radicals:
A. have longer half-lives than ion radicals
B. can diffuse and therefore extend damage beyond the primary radiation path
C. play an important role in the oxygen effect
D. tend to have half-lives on the order of seconds
E. are central to the indirect effect of radiation
5) Which of the following X-ray interactions with matter is most important for producing high-contrast diagnostic radiographs?
A. Compton process
B. pair production
C. photoelectric effect
D. nuclear disintegration
E. coherent scattering
A. The probability of the photoelectric effect decreases with the atomic number of the absorber.
B. The predominant interaction of 10 keV photons with soft tissue is the Compton process.
C. In the Compton process, the energy of the scattered photon is less than that of the incident photon.
D. Pair production occurs for photons with energies less than 1.02 MeV.
E. There is only partial absorption of the energy of the incident photon in the photoelectric effect.
2) Which one of the following is a radiolysis product of water responsible for 2/3-3/4 of the molecular damage caused by the indirect action of ionizing radiation?
A. eaq
B. 1O2
C. OH-
D. OH•
E. O2-
3) The approximate minimum photon energy required to cause ionization is:
A. 10-25 eV
B. 100-250 eV
C. 1-2.5 keV
D. 10-25 keV
E. 100-250 keV
4) Which of the following statements concerning free radicals is INCORRECT? Free radicals:
A. have longer half-lives than ion radicals
B. can diffuse and therefore extend damage beyond the primary radiation path
C. play an important role in the oxygen effect
D. tend to have half-lives on the order of seconds
E. are central to the indirect effect of radiation
5) Which of the following X-ray interactions with matter is most important for producing high-contrast diagnostic radiographs?
A. Compton process
B. pair production
C. photoelectric effect
D. nuclear disintegration
E. coherent scattering
Tuesday, October 1, 2013
FRCR Oncology Part 1: Physics MCQs 1 (18 questions)
1. Beta particles:
A. do contribute to patient
absorbed dose
B. before coming to rest may
travel in tissue for several millimetres
C. increase atomic number by
one
D. change mass number in the
nucleus
E. are emitted from the nucleus
2. Electron capture:
A. occurs in neutron poor
radionuclides
B. results in the emission of
characteristic X-rays
C. the atomic number remains
the same
D. the atomic mass number
remains the same
E. 123I decays wholly by electron capture
3. The isotopes of an element have:
A. identical atomic numbers
B. identical atomic mass
numbers
C. identical physical
properties
D. identical chemical
properties
E. the same density
4. Radioactivity:
A. a radionuclide is an atom
with an unstable nucleus
B. the activity of a
radionuclide is the number of decays per hour
C. unit of activity is the
Becquerel
D. radioactivity is a
stochastic process
E. the daughter product is
always radioactive
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